Answers are Marked with (ANS) next to them.
1 We split testing into distinct stages primarily
because:
a) Each test stage has a
different purpose. (ANS)
b) It is easier to manage testing in stages.
c) We can run different tests
in different environments.
d) The more stages we have, the better the testing.
2 Which of the following is
likely to benefit most from the use of test tools providing test capture and
replay facilities?
a) Regression testing (ANS)
b) Integration testing
c) System testing
d) User acceptance testing
3 Which of the following statements is NOT
correct?
a) A minimal test set that
achieves 100% LCSAJ coverage will also achieve 100% branch coverage.
b) A minimal test set that
achieves 100% path coverage will also achieve 100% statement coverage.
c)
A minimal test set that achieves 100% path coverage will
generally detect more faults than one that achieves 100% statement coverage.
d)
A minimal test set that achieves 100% statement coverage will
generally detect more faults than one that achieves 100% branch coverage. (ANS)
4 Which of the following requirements is
testable?
a) The system shall be user friendly.
b) The safety-critical parts of
the system shall contain 0 faults.
c) The response time shall be less than one second
for the specified design load. (ANS)
d) The system shall be built to be portable.
5 Analyse the following highly simplified
procedure:
Ask: “What type of ticket do
you require, single or return?” IF the customer wants ‘return’
Ask: “What rate, Standard or
Cheap-day?” IF the customer replies ‘Cheap-day’
Say: “That will be £11:20”
ELSE
Say: “That will be £19:50”
ENDIF
ELSE
Say: “That will be £9:75”
ENDIF
Now decide the minimum
number of tests that are needed to ensure that all the questions have been
asked, all combinations have occurred and all replies given.
b) 4
c) 5
d) 6
6 Error guessing:
a) supplements formal test
design techniques. (ANS)
b) can only be used in component, integration and
system testing.
c) is only performed in user
acceptance testing.
d) is not repeatable and should not be used.
7 Which of the following is NOT true of test
coverage criteria?
a) Test coverage criteria can
be measured in terms of items exercised by a test suite.
b) A measure of test coverage
criteria is the percentage of user requirements covered.
c) A measure of test coverage
criteria is the percentage of faults found. (ANS)
d)
Test coverage criteria are
often used when specifying test completion criteria.
8 In prioritising what to test, the most
important objective is to:
a) find as many faults as possible.
b) test high risk areas. (ANS)
c) obtain good test coverage.
d) test whatever is easiest to test.
9 Given the following sets of test management
terms (v- z), and activity descriptions (1-5), which one of the following best
pairs the two sets? v – test control
w – test monitoring x - test estimation
y - incident management z -
configuration control
1 - calculation of required test resources
2 - maintenance of record of
test results
3 - re-allocation of
resources when tests overrun
4 - report on deviation from test plan
5 - tracking of anomalous test results
a) v-3,w-2,x-1,y-5,z-4
b) v-2,w-5,x-1,y-4,z-3
c) v-3,w-4,x-1,y-5,z-2 (ANS)
d) v-2,w-1,x-4,y-3,z-5
10 Which one of the
following statements about system testing is NOT true?
a) System tests are often performed by independent
teams.
b) Functional testing is used
more than structural testing.
c) Faults found during system tests can be very
expensive to fix.
d) End-users should be involved in system tests.(ANS)
11 Which of the following is
false?
a) Incidents should always be fixed. (ANS)
b) An incident occurs when
expected and actual results differ.
c) Incidents can be analysed to assist in test
process improvement.
d) An incident can be raised against documentation.
12 Enough testing has been
performed when:
a) time runs out.
b) the required level of
confidence has been achieved. (ANS)
c) no more faults are found.
d) the users won’t find any serious faults.
13 Which of the following is
NOT true of incidents?
a) Incident resolution is the responsibility of the
author of the software under test. (ANS)
b) Incidents may be raised
against user requirements.
c) Incidents require investigation and/or
correction.
d) Incidents are raised when expected and actual
results differ.
14 Which of the following is not described in a
unit test standard?
a) syntax testing
b) equivalence partitioning
c) stress testing (ANS)
d) modified condition/decision coverage
15 Which of the following is false?
a) In a system two different failures may have
different severities.
b) A system is necessarily more
reliable after debugging for the removal of a fault. (ANS)
c) A fault need not affect the reliability of a
system.
d) Undetected errors may lead to faults and
eventually to incorrect behaviour.
16 Which one of the
following statements, about capture-replay tools, is NOT correct?
a) They are used to support multi-user testing.
b) They are used to capture and animate user
requirements. (ANS)
c) They are the most frequently
purchased types of CAST tool.
d) They capture aspects of user behaviour.
17 How would you estimate the amount of
re-testing likely to be required?
a) Metrics from previous
similar projects
b) Discussions with the development team
c) Time allocated for
regression testing
d) a & b (ANS)
18 Which of the following is true of the V-model?
a) It states that modules are
tested against user requirements.
b) It only models the testing phase.
c) It specifies the test techniques to be used.
d) It includes the
verification of designs.
(ANS)
19 The oracle assumption:
a) is that there is some
existing system against which test output may be checked.
b) is that the tester can routinely identify the
correct outcome of a test. (ANS)
c) is that the tester knows
everything about the software under test.
d) is that the tests are reviewed by experienced
testers.
20 Which of the following characterises the cost
of faults?
a) They are cheapest to find in
the early development phases and the most expensive to fix in the latest test
phases. (ANS)
b) They are easiest to find
during system testing but the most expensive to fix then.
c) Faults are cheapest to find
in the early development phases but the most expensive to fix then.
d) Although faults are most
expensive to find during early development phases, they are cheapest to fix
then.
21 Which of the following should NOT normally be
an objective for a test?
a) To find faults in the
software.
b) To assess whether the software is ready for
release.
c) To demonstrate that the
software doesn’t work.
d) To prove that the software is correct. (ANS)
22 Which of the following is a form of functional
testing?
a) Boundary value analysis (ANS)
b) Usability testing
c) Performance testing
d) Security testing
23 Which of the following would NOT normally form
part of a test plan?
a) Features to be tested
b) Incident reports (ANS)
c) Risks
d) Schedule
24
Which of these activities provides the biggest potential cost saving from the
use of CAST?
a) Test management
b) Test design
c) Test execution (ANS)
d) Test planning
25 Which of the following is
NOT a white box technique?
a) Statement testing
b) Path testing
c) Data flow testing
d) State transition testing(ANS)
26 Data flow analysis
studies:
a) possible communications bottlenecks in a program.
b) the rate of change of data
values as a program executes.
c) the use of data on paths through the code. (ANS)
d) the intrinsic complexity of the code.
27 In a system designed to
work out the tax to be paid:
An employee has £4000 of
salary tax free. The next £1500 is taxed at 10% The next £28000 is taxed at 22%
Any further amount is taxed at 40%
To the nearest whole pound,
which of these is a valid Boundary Value Analysis test case?
a) £1500
b) £32001
c) £33501 (ANS)
d) £28000
28 An important benefit of code inspections is
that they:
a) enable the code to be tested
before the execution environment is ready. (ANS)
b) can be performed by the person who wrote the
code.
c) can be performed by
inexperienced staff.
d) are cheap to perform.
29 Which of the following is
the best source of Expected Outcomes for User Acceptance Test scripts?
a) Actual results
b) Program specification
c) User requirements (ANS)
d) System specification
30 What is the main difference between a
walkthrough and an inspection?
a) An inspection is lead by the
author, whilst a walkthrough is lead by a trained moderator.
b) An inspection has a trained leader, whilst a
walkthrough has no leader.
c)
Authors are not present
during inspections, whilst they are during walkthroughs.
d) A walkthrough is lead by the
author, whilst an inspection is lead by a trained moderator. (ANS)
31 Which one of the
following describes the major benefit of verification early in the life cycle?
a) It allows the identification
of changes in user requirements.
b) It facilitates timely set up of the test
environment.
c) It reduces defect
multiplication. (ANS)
d) It allows testers to become involved early in the
project.
32 Integration testing in the small:
a) tests the individual components that have been
developed.
b) tests interactions between modules or subsystems.
(ANS)
c) only uses components that
form part of the live system.
d) tests interfaces to other systems.
33 Static analysis is best described as:
a) the analysis of batch
programs.
b) the reviewing of test plans.
c) the analysis of program
code. (ANS)
d) the use of black box testing.
34 Alpha testing is:
a) post-release testing by end
user representatives at the developer’s site.
b) the first testing that is performed.
c) pre-release testing by end
user representatives at the developer’s site. (ANS)
d) pre-release testing by end user representatives
at their sites.
35 A failure is:
a) found in the software; the
result of an error.
b) departure from specified behaviour. (ANS)
c) an incorrect step, process
or data definition in a computer program.
d) a human action that produces an incorrect result.
36 In a system designed to work out the tax to be
paid:
An employee has £4000 of
salary tax free. The next £1500 is taxed at 10% The next £28000 is taxed at 22%
Any further amount is taxed at 40%
Which of these groups of numbers would fall into
the same equivalence class?
a) £4800; £14000; £28000
b) £5200; £5500; £28000
c) £28001; £32000; £35000
d) £5800; £28000; £32000 (ANS)
37 The most important thing about early test
design is that it:
a) makes test preparation
easier.
b) means inspections are not required.
c) can prevent fault
multiplication. (ANS)
d) will find all faults.
38 Which of the following statements about
reviews is true?
a) Reviews cannot be performed
on user requirements specifications.
b) Reviews are the least effective way of testing
code.
c) Reviews are unlikely to find
faults in test plans.
d) Reviews should be performed on specifications,
code, and test plans. (ANS)
39 Test cases are designed during:
a) test recording.
b) test planning.
c) test configuration.
d) test specification. (ANS)
40 A configuration management system would NOT
normally provide:
a) linkage of customer
requirements to version numbers.
b) facilities to compare test results with expected
results.
(ANS)
c) the precise differences in
versions of software component source code.
d) restricted access to the source code library.
